In a recent publication from another Church of God organization, Christian participation in certain wars fought by humans is condoned and even advocated. Regarding Luke 22:36-38, it is stated, "Jesus warned his disciples of perilous times to come.

These are not the words of a pacifist.” Could you please explain this passage in light of your strong stance against Christian participation in war?

A: Luke 22:35-38 reads in context:

“And He said to them, ‘When I sent you without money bag, knapsack, and sandals, did you lack anything?’ So they said, ‘Nothing.’ [God took care of them.] Then He said to them, ‘But now, he who has a money bag, let him take it, and likewise a knapsack; and he who has no sword, let him sell his garment and buy one. For I say to you that this which is written must still be accomplished in Me: “And He was numbered with the transgressors.” For the things concerning Me have an end.’ So they said: ‘Lord, look, here are two swords.’ And He said to them: ‘It is enough.'”

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What are the Biblical principles enjoining us not to serve on a jury?

There are different Biblical principles involved. We believe that the following will best express our religious convictions against participating in jury duty:

A true Christian is a stranger, alien and exile (1 Peter 2:11; Hebrews 11:13) while here on earth; an ambassador for Jesus Christ (2 Corinthians 5:20); and a representative of God’s Kingdom. As such, and in being a light to the world by proper conduct (Matthew 5:14-16), a true Christian does not take part in this world’s governmental or political affairs, as presently, it is not God who rules this earth, but Satan the devil (Revelation 2:13; Luke 4:5-6). Christians are challenged to come out of the governmental and political systems of this world. Christ, knowing that God’s Kingdom was not of this world (John 18:36), refused to judge a civil matter when He was asked to do so (Luke 12:14). Paul, likewise, condemned judging those “who are outside” the church (1 Corinthians 5:12).

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Law of Jealousy

In your new booklet, “And Lawlessness Will Abound…”, you are referring, on page 11, to the “law of jealousy,” as quoted in Numbers 5:29-30, as a “ritualistic procedure” to determine whether a wife had committed adultery or not. What is that “spirit of jealousy”? Is this law still to be applied and practiced today? If not, how are we in the Church to determine whether a wife is guilty of adultery or not?

In Numbers 5:11-31, God gave Old Testament Israel a supernatural means of determining whether a wife had committed adultery or not, although she had not been caught, and no witness was present (Numbers 5:13). When “the spirit of jealousy” came upon the husband, so that he suspected a transgression of his wife, the husband could bring his wife to the priest, and he had to bring at the same time the “grain offering of jealousy.” (Numbers 5:15).

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Could you please explain the passages in Matthew 24:34 and Matthew 16:28? Are they referring to the same event?

Matthew 24:34 is not dealing with the same set of events as in chapter 16:28. Note the context of Matthew 24 and 25. In verse 3 of the 24th chapter, the disciples of Christ asked him the following: ” ‘Tell us, when will these things be? And what will be the sign of Your coming, and of the end of the age.’ ” Christ then goes on to answer them by pointing out events that literally span the entire church age, but He deals primarily with those events that signal His imminent return to the earth.

In verse 34, Christ says, ” ‘Assuredly I say to you, this generation will by no means pass away till all these things take place.’ ” From the broader context, we understand that in this verse Christ is speaking about that generation that is alive when the dramatic intervention of God in human affairs actually occurs.

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Please explain Romans 13:3, stating that "rulers are not a terror to good works, but to evil." I could think of many rulers who are a terror to good works. Also, do we have to obey civil rulers and their laws in everything?

Paul is talking here about rulers in general, who uphold certain laws to guarantee a civil and peaceful harmonious lifestyle amongst their citizens. Paul is referring to the submission to and the enforcement of civil and criminal laws, such as theft or murder.

Paul is not talking here about the Hitlers or Neros, etc., who are encouraging their citizens to betray Christians or the Jews, so that they can be killed. We need to remember Christ’s statement to OBEY the Pharisees in all that they tell the people, but later, Peter did not obey them when they told him not to preach in the name of Christ. Christ would not obey them, either, to follow their rules of ceremonial washing, or to have no contact with “sinners.” So, Christ was talking about matters which were not in conflict with God’s word. (Notice, too, that John the Baptist openly rebuked Herod for committing adultery with his brother’s wife (Luke 3:19-20). Also, Daniel refused the obey the order of king Darius, not to pray to God, and his three friends disobeyed the order of king Nebuchadnezzar to worship the golden image).

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Please explain 1 Corinthians 7:14, as it refers to our children.

1 Corinthians 7:14 reads, “For the unbelieving husband is sanctified
by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband;
otherwise your children would be unclean, but now they are holy.”

The Ryrie Study Bible gives the following correct explanations of this passage:

“The
presence of a believer in the home sets the home apart and gives it a
Christian influence it would not otherwise have. A believing partner,
therefore, should stay with the unbeliever. However, this does not mean
that children born into such a home are automatically Christians. They
are holy in the sense of being set apart by the presence of one
believing parent.”

Christ makes it very clear that one must be
called by God to have access to God. Generally, when Adam and Eve

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Sabbath For Jews Only?

Isn’t the Sabbath for the Jews only, and didn’t God introduce the Sabbath to the Jews for the first time in Exodus 16?

It is not correct that the Sabbath is mentioned for the first time in Exodus 16, or that God introduced the Sabbath to the people at that time. The Sabbath is mentioned in the very second chapter of the Bible, where God set it aside as HOLY, to be USED by man for a HOLY purpose.

God created the Sabbath at the time when He created man. We read in Genesis 2:2, “He RESTED on the seventh day from all His work…Then God blessed the seventh day and sanctified it, because in it He rested from all His work.” The word for “rested,” in the Hebrew, is “shabath,” and it means, according to Young’s Analytical Concordance to the Bible, “to cease, rest, keep Sabbath.” God created the Sabbath at the time of the creation of man, by RESTING or ceasing from His work, and He “sanctified” that day, that is, He “set it aside for a holy purpose.”

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The term "Apostle"

Can you please explain how the term “Apostle” should be used today in light of its usage in the New Testament?

Jesus Christ is the only individual who is referred to in Scripture as “the” Apostle (Hebrews 3:1). Paul and Peter refer to themselves as “an” apostle,” or, as “an apostle of Jesus Christ.” (Romans 1:1; 1 Corinthians 1:1; 9:1; 2 Corinthians 1:1; 12:12; Ephesians 1:1; Colossians 1:1; 1 Timothy 1:1; 2:7; 2 Timothy 1:1; 1:11; Titus 1:1; 1 Peter 1:1; 2 Peter 1:1).

The Authorized Version translates Romans 11:13 this way, “I [Paul] am the apostle of the Gentiles.” However, in the Greek, there is no definite article (“the”) in front of the word, “apostle.” By contrast, in Hebrews 3:1, in reference to Jesus Christ, there is a definite article (“the”) in the Greek in front of the word, “Apostle.” Many translations, including the New King James Bible, or the Revised Standard Version, translate Romans 11:13, in this way, “I am an apostle to the Gentiles.”

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Lucifer

Editors’ Note:

We received last week an interesting question regarding our use of the word “Lucifer.” We are sharing our response with you:

In the Hebrew, the word translated as “Lucifer” in the King James Bible and many other translations, is “helel,” or “heylel,” and means, according to Strong’s, Young’s, and other commentaries, “lightbringer,” “shining one,” “morning star”,” or “shining star of the dawn.”

The word “Lucifer” is the Latin translation of the Hebrew word, “helel,” or “heylel,” conveying exactly the same meaning. So it is appropriate to use this word, describing the cherub who later became “Satan.” God uses many times names to describe the character of an individual. “Satan,” by the way, is the English translation of the Hebrew word, “sawtwan.”

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