Since the Bible does not contain any contradictions (compare John 10:35), what then is the answer to this question?
Zephaniah 3:9 addresses the time of the Millennium, when Jesus Christ rules on and over the earth, and states:
“For then I will restore to the peoples a pure language, That they may all call on the name of the LORD, To serve Him with one accord.”
Compare also Isaiah 19:18: “In that day five cities in the land of Egypt will speak the language of Canaan and swear by the LORD of hosts…”
The thought is being conveyed here that all of the peoples will have ONE language, and that the Egyptians will speak the same language as those who will live in the land of Canaan. It does not have to mean that it will be Hebrew—in fact, it is doubtful that the Canaanites spoke Hebrew when the Israelites conquered the Promised Land. Nor are we to necessarily assume that the pure language will be the tongue of the Hebrews after they had taken possession of the Promised Land; rather, Isaiah 19:18 points out that those in the land of Egypt and those in the land of Canaan will all speak the same language in the Millennium.
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