Q&A – Page 91 – Church of the Eternal God

Does the Bible permit adultery, when the non-involved mate consents; or premarital sex when the involved parties subsequently marry?

January 13, 2006

The short answer is, No. We read in 1 Corinthians 6:18 that we are
to “flee sexual immorality. Every sin that a man does is outside the
body, but he who commits sexual immorality sins against his own body.”
Members of God’s Church are also told not to “make provisions for the
flesh, to fulfill its lusts (Romans 13:14).” Further, they are
commanded to “abstain from sexual immorality; that each of you should
know how to possess his own vessel in sanctification and honor, not in
passion of lust, like the Gentiles who do not know God” (1
Thessalonians 4:3-5).

Regarding this last passage, the Ryrie
Study Bible comments that this “means either mastery over one’s own
body, keeping it pure (1 Cor. 9:24-27),” or that it “refers to an
honorable marriage (vessel = wife, as 1 Pet. 3:7).” A third possibility

In the Bible, God gives specific instructions and commandments. But weren’t Paul’s writings driven by the prevailing culture at that time?

January 6, 2006

We must be very careful that we don’t fall into the trap of trying
to say that what Paul taught was just an instruction for his time, some
2,000 years ago–and that it is not necessarily binding for us today.
This wrong understanding was epitomized by an Anglican Bishop who, when
challenged on a particular issue a few years ago, wrote:

“My
disagreement stems partly from my understanding of the way in which I
read the Bible, praying that the Holy Spirit will enlighten my
understanding of what statements are unchangeable and what are
conditioned by social and cultural norms of the time in which God spoke
to those involved.”

He fell into the trap of “cherry picking”
those portions of Scripture that suited his particular stance and
ignoring those which he considered no longer applicable. This is a very
dangerous thing to do because God clearly states that “ALL
Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for
doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in
righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, thoroughly equipped
for every good work” (2 Timothy 3:16-17).

The problem with the

What did Paul mean when he told us to discern the Lord's body (1 Corinthians 11:29)?

December 30, 2005

In the passage in question, Paul was addressing the yearly Passover
ceremony. Beginning in 1 Corinthians 11:23, Paul reminded the disciples
of the event when Christ instituted the New Testament symbols of bread
and wine at the annual Passover service (compare verses 23-26). He then
continued:

“Therefore whoever eats this bread or drinks this cup
of the Lord in an unworthy manner will be guilty of the body and blood
of the Lord. But let a man examine himself, and so let him eat of the
bread and drink of the cup. For he who eats and drinks in an unworthy
manner eats and drinks judgment to himself, not discerning the Lord’s
body. For this reason many are weak and sick among you, and many sleep.”

The
Sacrifice of Jesus Christ includes His death for the forgiveness of our

Are angels or demons able to have sexual relationships with women and produce human offspring?

December 23, 2005

Absolutely not! God’s Word is very clear that such a possibility simply does not exist.

First
of all, let us remember that God made animals and humans according to
their kind (Genesis 1:21, 24-28). Animals can only reproduce other
animals, according to their kind (two dogs can produce another dog, but
they can’t produce a horse or a bird), and men can only produce humans
(they can’t produce animals). Since men and angels belong to a
different “kind,” it is impossible for that reason alone, that they
could produce human offspring.

In addition, as created spirit
beings, angels or fallen angels (demons) do not reproduce sexually or
by any other means. Jesus made this very clear. He said in Luke
20:34-36 that the “sons of this age,” i.e. human beings who live today,

Is it possible for a Christian to receive more of God’s Holy Spirit?

December 16, 2005August 18, 2019

The answer is yes, and the way in which this might occur involves personal growth as well as God choosing someone to fulfill a special function in His service.

First of all, understand that God gives man His Holy Spirit as a gift. Peter explains this in context in Acts 2:38: “Then Peter said to them, ‘Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission [Margin: forgiveness] of sins, and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.'”

Paul further describes the purpose of God’s gift: “In Him [Christ] you also trusted, after you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation; in whom also, having believed, you were sealed with the Holy Spirit of promise, [which] is the guarantee [Margin: down payment, earnest] of our inheritance until the redemption of the purchased possession, to the praise of His glory” (Ephesians 1:13-14; also, compare 2 Corinthians 5:5).

Would you please explain the last phrase in Isaiah 28:16?

December 9, 2005

Isaiah 28:16 reads: “Therefore thus says the Lord GOD: ‘Behold I lay
in Zion a stone for a foundation, A tried stone, a precious
cornerstone, a sure foundation; WHOEVER BELIEVES WILL NOT ACT HASTILY.”

What is meant with “Whoever believes will not act hastily”?

The
context clearly refers to the announcement of God THE FATHER to lay in
Zion (which many times describes the Church of God) a precious
cornerstone for a foundation. This describes the Messiah, Jesus Christ,
as many New Testament passages reveal (compare Matthew 21:42; Mark
12:10; Luke 20:17; Acts 4:11; Romans 9:33; Ephesians 2:20; and 1 Peter
2:6-8).

Notice, though, that this stone would be “tried” first.
Christ had to QUALIFY in His life as a human being to become the
foundation and the precious cornerstone–on which the New Testament
Church would be built. We read that Christ became perfect through
suffering (Hebrews 2:10); and that He was tempted in all things, just
as we are, yet without sin (Hebrews 4:15). He had to overcome
(Revelation 3:21)–Satan, this world, and His own human nature or His
sinful flesh (Romans 8:3)–as He WAS a human being, FULLY flesh and

Would you please explain 2 Kings 5:17-19? Did Elisha permit the Syrian officer Naaman to worship idols in the pagan temple of Rimmon?

December 2, 2005

Some have used this passage to justify Christian participation in
pagan worship services. This is, however, not the meaning of 2 Kings
5:17-19, and the Bible, as a whole, clearly condemns such practices.
Before analyzing the passage in question, let us review what happened
before.

Beginning in verse 1 of 2 Kings 5, we find that Naaman
was the commander of the army of the king of Syria, a great and
honorable man, but a leper. With the king’s permission, Naaman went to
Israel to be healed by the prophet Elisha from his leprosy. Elisha did
not meet with Naaman, but told him through a messenger to wash in the
Jordan River seven times, to become clean. Naaman had expected to see
Elisha personally and reacted with anger regarding Elisha’s injunction,

What is the significance of the "firstfruits" as referred to in 1 Corinthians 15:20 and James 1:18?

November 25, 2005

1 Corinthians 15:20 says that “…Christ is risen from the dead, and has become the FIRSTFRUITS of those who have fallen asleep.” James 1:18, however, refers to Christ’s true disciples, in this day and age, calling THEM firstfruits: “Of His own will He brought us forth by the word of truth, that we might be a kind of FIRSTFRUITS of His creatures.”

We also read in additional passages that true Christians, who are called to the truth and to salvation in this day and age, are referred to as “firstfruits”:

Revelation 14:4 says: “These are the ones who were not defiled with women, for they are virgins. These are the ones who follow the Lamb wherever He goes. These were redeemed from among men, being FIRSTFRUITS to God and to the Lamb.”

In Romans 16:5, Epaeneteus is called “the firstfruits of Achaia to Christ.” 1 Corinthians 16:15 refers to the household of Stephanus as the “firstfruits of Achaia.”

These Scriptures, and many others, point out a sequence or time order–they refer both to the time of calling, and, mainly, to the time of the resurrection. Although some were called to the truth in Old Testament times (compare Hebrews 11), most true disciples of Christ were called for salvation since the beginning of the New Testament church, in A.D. 31, when the Holy Spirit was given to Christ’s apostles and disciples. Romans 8:23 says that Paul and others had “the firstfruits of the Spirit.” In addition to the time sequence of calling, the risen Christ became the FIRST or the “firstfruits” of those being resurrected from the dead, as an immortal spirit being and a glorified member of the God Family. Christ’s true disciples in this day and age will be resurrected or changed to immortality at the time of Christ Second Coming. But they, too, are just the firstfruits of many others who will be resurrected from the dead AFTER Christ’s Return.

Did God tell Samuel to lie?

November 18, 2005

God cannot lie. It is against His very nature and being to lie (Numbers 23:19; Titus 1:2; Hebrews 6:18). God has told us in His Word that it is a sin to lie (Exodus 20:16). God does not tempt us to sin (James 1:13), and He does not tempt us–let alone order us–to lie. On the other hand, God sometimes uses lying people or even lying spirits or demons to carry out His purpose (compare 1 Kings 22). This does not mean that God orders anyone to lie–but since men and demons are free moral agents and may decide to sin, God may use them to accomplish a certain goal–but the decision to sin, including to lie, is still man’s or the spirit’s decision (For a better understanding, please read our free booklet, “Angels, Demons and the Spirit World,” especially pages 46-51).

Does John 20:22 teach that Christ's apostles received the Holy Spirit prior to Christ's ascension to heaven and the Feast of Pentecost?

November 11, 2005

In John 20:22, we read that Christ, after His resurrection, but before His ascension to heaven and the subsequent Day of Pentecost, breathed upon the disciples and said to them, “Receive the Holy Spirit.” Some erroneously teach that on that occasion, Christ gave His disciples the Holy Spirit (compare Nelson Study Bible and the Ryrie Study Bible, comments to John 20). Others understand correctly that Christ did not give the Holy Spirit to His disciples at that time. The New Bible Commentary: Revised explains:

“The breathing upon them of the Spirit is understandable since the Greek ‘pneuma’ means both breath and spirit. This would appear to be in anticipation of Pentecost, although some specific assurance of the conveyance of the gift is clearly given here.”